Looking over GP10 Manufacturing. Regarding the Labor Applied account, I see how that works:
To Apply STD labor costs to WIP:
Dr. WIP
Cr. Labor Applied (Clearing account holding STD costs off the Router NOT actual costs )
When we pay our employees
Dr. Labor Applied
Cr. Cash for actual labor costs
Balance in Labor Applied used for variance analysis:
• if we have a Cr. balance in Labor Applied then our actual labor costs were lower than STD costs
• if we have a Dr. balance in Labor Applied then our actual labor costs were greater than STD costs
A debit balance in a variance account is always unfavorable.
Now Machine time
To Apply STD machine time costs to WIP:
Dr. WIP
Cr. Machine Applied (Clearing account holding STD costs off the Router NOT actual costs )
When does this account get debited? When MO is received, WIP is credited and FG is debited for accumulated costs. Machine Applied is not touched.
How to know my machine time variance?
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