My client changed asset cost and chose the option to reset year. The depreciation has recalculated/adjusted correctly and changes start in period 01-2011. However, I noted that cost has changed at period 03-2011 instead of the expected period 01. Can this be explained?
The averaging convention is set at full period.
Do mean transaction representing the change in asset cost is visible under period 03-2011?
When cost of an asset is changed the transaction is posted in the period up to which asset is already depreciated. So if the asset is already depreciated to 03-2011, change transaction (FACHG) is posted to period 03-2011.
Thanks Rubal. This answers my question.
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