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Microsoft Dynamics GP (Archived)

GP Revaluation Routine

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Posted on by 955

Hey - is anyone doing revaluation?? If so are you doing both realized and unrealized?? are you doing it to all balance sheet and income statement accounts? HELP!!!

Multicurrency drives me nutes!

Thanks

Rose

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  • Richard Schultz Profile Picture
    1,085 on at
    Re: GP Revaluation Routine

    Rose,

    I think you are referring to account revaluation.  The only accounts which you should revalue are those which retain/track a non-functional currency.

    The major accounts that are typically revalued are your AR control account, your AP control account, and any non-functional cash accounts (ie, if your functional currency is USD, and you have a Canadian dollar bank account, that Canadian dollar account is denominated in a non-functional currency).

    I'm not aware of any reason (under GAAP) to revalue income statement accounts.

    Revaluations provide the latest value of non-functional-currency-denominated financial instruments in your functional currency, so that they may be consolidated with the rest of your accounts to present your financial statements.  As such, they are "pro-forma" values and are always "UNrealized".

    If this doesn't quite cover what you're looking for, please let me know.

    You can learn to love multicurrency.  Really!

  • TGAController Profile Picture
    955 on at
    Re: Re: GP Revaluation Routine

    Wow....you seem like a guru on this topic which I am excited to actually speak to someone who knows what I am talking about....basically what your saying is I need to revalue my balances sheet accounts (obviously it revalues the foreign denominated transactions only)...assuming what your saying is correct...how often do you revalue if we are only inputting exchange rates one time for the month??when do you reverse the transaction?

    In opposition to what your saying...why would you not revalue income statement accounts to calculate transactions using average rates for the year/period?  In addition, would we not revalue realized gains/losses by end of year for balance accounts such as intercompany and equity in order to close out at year end?

     Thank you very much...i am trying to love it slowly if it does'nt kill me (LOL)

     -Rose

  • Richard Schultz Profile Picture
    1,085 on at
    Re: Re: Re: GP Revaluation Routine

     Rose,

    I think you may be confusing three related issues, Conversion, Revaluation and Translation. 

    Conversion is done at the TRANSACTION level, and takes a non-functional-currency value and converts it to your functional currency.  Each multi-currency transaction you enter in Great Plains is converted to the Functional currency.  So, if you issue a CAD-denominated invoice in your USD-denominated company, GP will store the original value (called the Originating currency value) and will calculated the USD equivalent.  So, in response to your question, yes, every transaction should be converted to the functional value appropriate to the given company.

    Revaluation is done at the TRANSACTION level as well, and is only important/necessary if the transaction will be reversed to cash (ie an invoice that will be paid off, a loan that will be collected on, etc.)  Again, with the CAD invoice in a USD company; if the invoice is outstanding at the end of the month, GAAP requires that all non-functionally-denominated invoices be revalued to show the current spot rate as at the balance sheet date.  The revaluation process in GP supports this, but I've only used it for subledger control accounts; in effect, it changes the functional currency value for each outstanding document.

    Translation is done at the COMPANY level, and allows you to consolidate companies which have different functional currencies into ONE "reporting" currency.  As an example, if you have 2 companies, one with a functional currency of CAD and another with a USD functional currency, and you wish to report consolidated values in USD, you need to TRANSLATE the CAD company's statements into USD, then add them to the USD company.

    So, with that long-winded statement in mind, let's look at your questions:

    Income statement:  TRANSACTIONS that affect the income statement are converted using the appropriate exchange rate for the posting date of the transaction.  GP uses the most-recent exchange rate in your exchange rate table; if you put in a new rate every month, it will choose that rate all month.  Unless there is a huge monthly fluctuation, that approach is perfectly acceptable under GAAP.  However, since Income Statement values are required to show the historical value of the transaction, they typically may not be revalued under GAAP.

    Balance Sheet:  As with the income statement, transactions that affect the balance sheet are also converted, using the same exchange rate as the income statement, when they are entered.  Unlike the Income statement, however, most balance sheet accounts are intended to be valued at their current rate, not their historical rate.  Now, most balance sheet transactions will eventually be reversed into Revenue or Expense - cash will be spent on expenses, deferred revenue will become revenue.  If a Balance Sheet item is denominated in a foreign currency (foreign to the entity, that is) it should be revalued at the balance sheet date - if you do one balance sheet per month, that is the date you should get a new rate.  However, few companies have significant transactions which are denominated in foreign currencies, with the usual exceptions of AP, AR and Cash.  Other possibilities are Intercompany lending, loans sourced in other currencies, or investments in foreign concerns.  Of course, once the item is reversed (cash received for invoices, or cash paid for vouchers, loans paid off, etc) then there is no need to revalue the item, because it's value will be zero going forward.

    So, you should REVALUE any balance sheet transaction lines which are denominated originally in foreign currencies, until such a time as they have a zero balance.  You should NOT REVALUE any Income statement transactions, unless there is a very specific reason to do so (which I've not yet come across).  Your auditor would likely be able to let you know if that should be an issue.

    I hope I got a bit closer on this.  Sorry again for the long-winded nature.  If you're interested, the related US GAAP discussion is FASB 52, which replaced FASB 8.  Please let me know if I missed on anything.

     

  • TGAController Profile Picture
    955 on at
    Re: Re: Re: Re: GP Revaluation Routine

    Richard.

     I enjoy your long answers...in fact they can be even longer since I am learning something new with every line.  I will be away at a conference today but would love to continue this conversation tomorrow.  I even do not mind taking it off the blog and into regular email.  Have a good day and we will chat again tomorrow.

     

    Thank you

    Rose

  • Community Member Profile Picture
    on at
    Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: GP Revaluation Routine

    Hi Guys,

    Please don't take this conversation off the board.We can all learn from it.

    Best regards,

  • Richard Schultz Profile Picture
    1,085 on at
    Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: GP Revaluation Routine

     Rose,

    I'm happy to continue if you like.  I agree with Ian; I also learn a lot from reading answers on this board.  That said, if any of the issues you're facing are too sensitive for a larger audience, feel free to contact me at rschultz@100wattsolutions.com.

  • TGAController Profile Picture
    955 on at
    Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: GP Revaluation Routine

    Richard,

     We can continue online but I will send you an email offline as well.  Just to reiterate and confirm my understanding...

    In our GBP foreign entity (functional currency is pounds) when consolidating up into the parent company reporting in USD then the income statement items are translated at averate rate, balance sheet items are translated at balance sheet date and RE is translated at historical rate.  We have a CTA/FCTA in the equity section for the difference between year to date net income and RE (due to the calculation of average rate income statement items versus spot rate)

    In our US entity that has foreign denominated transactions whereby we input one rate monthly for the different currencies used, we need to revalue only UNREALIZED balance sheets accounts (I restrict the accounts to be all assets,liablities and equity) at the end of the month.  The revalue routine in GP has an option of a reversing date when revaluing unrealized items; do I choose a reversing date? I would assume it to be the first day of the following month. So if we revalue on June 30th then the reversng date would be July 1st...is this correct?

    In addition are there any additional steps I need to take at year end?? or do I do the usual routine mentioned about with revaluation?

     Thank you for all your help both for me and all those out there reading

    -Rose

  • Richard Schultz Profile Picture
    1,085 on at
    Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: GP Revaluation Routine

     Rose,

    That clarifies things admirably.  

    First, the GBP sub - correct on all counts.  You are using the "Current Method" which is supported by FASB 52.  Note that IFRS, if it ever applies to your organization, may require you to use a different method; that hasn't been established yet, and is still an area of contention.  Note that having the CTA in the sub's translated Equity section implies that the sub is "integrated" into its environment; effectively, it does not rely financially on the US parent.

    One other minor note on the GBP sub; be sure to use the correct average rate for your income statement.  For example, if you're using a comparative income statement with current quarter and year-to-date, the average rate for the current quarter is different than the year-to-date average.  I only bring that up because I made that mistake before :)

    For the US entity with foreign-denominated transactions; you only want to revalue Assets and Liabilities, since Equity is always handled using an historical rate (that may not be quite right if you have significant APIC balances and there is a likelihood of liquidating dividends).  You are right - the reversal date should be the first day of the following month.  This is necessary because GP only looks at the original value of the transaction - it doesn't look at the revaluation calculations you've made since the transaction was originally booked.  If you didn't reverse monthly, you would generate excess FX gains/losses. 

    The only tricky bit about year-end is to make sure you open the first month of the new year before trying to post the reversing transaction.  That's another mistake I made...

    The theoretical support for all this is found in SFAS 52 (aka FASB 52):  http://www.fasb.org/cs/BlobServer?blobcol=urldata&blobtable=MungoBlobs&blobkey=id&blobwhere=1175818750862&blobheader=application%2Fpdf

    Finally, remember that the CTA is a "plug"; as such, it is only correct if there were no other errors generated in translating and consolidating your financial statements.  If you'd like to calculate the CTA directly, please see my blog entries here:  http://www.100wattsolutions.com/blog/?m=200906 

     

  • TGAController Profile Picture
    955 on at
    Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: GP Revaluation Routine

    Richard,

    I agree with all you say above however we generate consolidated statements.  As such the CTA appears on the consolidated statements.  It is calculated because of the foreign based entity however regardless of whether that entity relies financially on the US parent, a CTA needs to be calculated to roll equity and have assets=liablities + equity.  (note our entity does rely on the US parent).  The need for the CTA arises because the average rate used on year to date income statement transactions does not tie to the spot rate of the RE per the balance sheet.  Although I read your blog and is quite informative I believe it is overly complicated.  Shouldnt CTA be calculated by

    Net Income at spot rate- Net Income at average rate= CTA which is a plug in the equity section and is considered "other comprensive income"

     Its funny our topic jumped from revaluation to CTA but I guess they all relate!

    -Rose

  • Richard Schultz Profile Picture
    1,085 on at
    Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: GP Revaluation Routine

     Rose,

    Your points are all basically correct, and in accordance with GAAP.  The CTA calculation you outline is the standard calculation and the correct basis for reporting.  That said, it is still a plug, and assumes no errors in the translation process. If you had an error in your translation of the balance sheet or income statement, the calculation method you outline will simply roll that error into your CTA account.

    I agree; the process is not simple.  However, when you have auditors requiring you to prove that your CTA isn't simply a dumping ground for translation errors (as in my experience), it's useful to know there is a way to calculate the CTA directly.  I likely wouldn't use it every month; perhaps only the quarter before year end and then at year end, just to make sure there wasn't an error from earlier in the year creeping in which would need to be fixed before the auditors signed off.

    You're right - the CTA only shows up on consolidation.  Indeed, that's the only way it could show up.  However, each foreign-denominated subsidiary contributes to the CTA, so at the very least, it is useful to calculate CTA separately for each sub to, at least, inform any need for hedging. 


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