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I have a situation where Finance posted an invoice before the PO was completed and closed.
The PO was closed at a later time, but it was not tied to the invoice.
The invoice was voided, and the PO was re-opened. But now they cannot close the PO anymore.
Anyone has any suggestion?
Thank you in advance.
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Agreed, finance made a mistake in voiding the customer invoice. Now they know not to void an invoice. As for the PO, they were desperately trying to figure out how to tie the PO to the customer's invoice, for that reason they changed the status on the PO to 'open. Now they are trying to figure out how to change the status to 'close'.
Thank you for your help.
Finance, I believe made a mistake in voiding the invoice. Voiding the invoice in RM would not properly adjust inventory. You cannot void an invoice in SOP, the only thing you can do is return it. Voiding the invoice in RM would have absolutely no affect on the PO. About the PO, did someone do a return to vendor in order to 'open' the PO again?
Leslie
The reason the invoice was voided, because finance noticed after posting it that it was not linked to the PO.
Sorry confusion... I am also confused by what my finance guys did. And I am new user of GP, so I am not very familiar with it. So are the finance users.
Let me start from the top.
A customer's order was entered in the system. That customer's order was tied to a Drop Ship PO.
Finance received/Invoiced the PO. A customer's invoice was generated and was posted.
Finance later noticed that there was a problem with the invoice, they were very quick to void the customer's invoice . I am not sure if this is happened systematically or someone in Finance change the status on the PO from "closed" to "change order". They have tried reconciling the PO in attempt to make it closed, but that did not work. Now they are asking me how to close the PO.
I hope I am not missing anything else.
Thank you for your help.
You are not the only one confused. The information provided by the OP is insufficient to begin assisting him with the problem.
Since the title specifies "Customer Invoice", I can only imagine the invoice was posted in SOP. If the invoice was posted in SOP, it can only mean one things: the invoice was not committed to a PO and SOP is configured to override shortage.
Since the OP specifies that "[t]he PO was closed at a later time, but it was not tied to the invoice", I can only imagine we are talking about the scenario I describe above.
Now, if they are allowing override shortage, I don't understand why on earth they would have "reopened the PO" giving that GP would have calculated the proper cost of good sold, assuming all they had on shortage were the quantities invoiced, when the vendor invoice would have been matched to the PO. Assuming they needed to void the customer invoice, there was still no reason to "reopen the PO", since at no point the OP specified the goods were no longer needed.
In any case, if they "reopened the PO", I can only assume they did a return. If they did a return, then the PO is now open and they can either receive against it once more (which apparently is not what they want) or can use the Edit Purchase Order Status window (Purchasing > Transactions > Edit Purchase Order) to close the PO.
As you can tell, too many assumptions which can lead to bad answers.
I believe this is all a misunderstanding on how the SOP/POP modules work as opposed to something wrong with the system.
Hi,
I'm not sure I understand the progression of events. When you say 'invoice', did the Finance department just enter a payables transaction to the vendor for the amount of the vendors invoice? When you say the PO was completed and closed, how was it 'completed'. Once closed, how did you re-open the PO? Were you hoping to invoice against the PO?
Please give me some more details. Clearly I'm not getting it here. I apologize for my confusion.
Kind regards,
Leslie
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Almas Mahfooz
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