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Microsoft Dynamics GP (Archived)

Answer this A/R question and you'll earn you a LESLIE VAIL badge!

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Posted on by 571

This Accounts Receivable question came up when our custom finance charge routine hit a snag with one Customer (snag explained below). This led me to do some analysis on our Receivables.

In our GP database, since the beginning of the current fiscal year, we've entered over 5,000 cash receipts. 4.3% of those receipts (221) have a DINVPDOF recorded in the RM20101 ( the RM Open File). (We don't archive our invoices and receipts... they're all in the RM20201 table.) That is, the DINVPDOF date is something other than 1900-01-01... 4.3% of the receipts. I thought at first that that date would be filled in whenever the cash receipt was fully applied... but that tiny percentage of receipts with DINVPDOF dates makes that theory suspect.

Two-thirds (66.5%) of those 221 cash receipts have a DINVPDOF which is different from the most recent GLPOSTDT of the invoices paid by that receipt. One would think: if the DINVPDOF for a cash receipt would be filled in at all in GP, then it should equal the GLPOSTDT of the last invoice paid by that receipt, yes? That is, once the receipt has been fully applied, the DINVPDOF of the receipt would equal the GLPOSTDT of the final invoice paid by the receipt. Doesn't that make sense?

But that 66.5% of the 4.3% of all cash receipts since the beginning of the fiscal year have that "anomaly". The question I have is, "What's the deal, here?"

1) Why is the DINVPDOF used at all for cash receipts... and
2) why do the majority of our receipts with DINVPDOF dates not match the latest GLPOSTDT of the invoices they've paid off?

This mystery surfaced with one Customer's finance charge computation. A group of invoices were all paid by the same cash receipt. The RM20201.ApplyFromGLPostDate is the same for all of these invoices: 12/12/2016. But half of the invoices have a DINVPDOF of 12/12/2016 and half have a DINVPDOF of 12/22/2016... which happens to be the DINVPDOF of the cash receipt itself.

Our A/R people are going, "Wait... what?" So am I. A beautiful LESLIE VAIL badge to whomever can explain this... and the two questions I've posed above.

THANK YOU! I am only an egg, as Michael Valentine Smith said.

Sincerely,

------------------------------
"Sparkly" Steve Erbach - Business Analyst & MS Dynamics Platform Administrator

GPUGSummit2017NashvilleTrackLeader_5F00_50.jpg
WOW Logistics Company - Appleton, WI
Co-Chair, GPUG WI (Green Bay) Chapter

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  • serbach Profile Picture
    571 on at
    RE: Answer this A/R question and you'll earn you a LESLIE VAIL badge!

    Leslie,

    Your reply caused me to go back and look at the thread on gpug.com. Finally things clicked into place. I awarded you a bronze Leslie Vail badge there, and I'll award it here, too, to show the world that you nudged my thinking into the right channel!

    LeslieBronze.gif

    (It's supposed to be an animated GIF...)

    Sincerely,

    Steve "Sparkly" Erbach
    WOW Logistics Company
    Appleton, WI

  • serbach Profile Picture
    571 on at
    RE: Answer this A/R question and you'll earn you a LESLIE VAIL badge!

    Mariano,

    An MVP lurker!

  • Mariano Gomez Profile Picture
    26,225 on at
    RE: Answer this A/R question and you'll earn you a LESLIE VAIL badge!

    I just came here to see what Leslie would answer... ;-)

  • Verified answer
    L Vail Profile Picture
    65,271 on at
    RE: Answer this A/R question and you'll earn you a LESLIE VAIL badge!

    Hi Sparkly,

    The dateinvpdoff is simply the apply date of the document that sent the cur trx amt to zero. I do no think it has anything to do with the posting date of the invoice.  A WRITE OF DOCUMENT, once applied will set the paid off date. The apply date is also the date any  1099 amounts will be recognized as paid, and therefore print on the 1099s. if you look in your apply tables and look for the final payment's apply date, that should match the date inv paid field, Do they?

    kind regards,

    leslie

  • Suggested answer
    Heather Roggeveen Profile Picture
    9,146 on at
    RE: Answer this A/R question and you'll earn you a LESLIE VAIL badge!

    Hi

    Is it simply that the Date Invoice Paid Off field is mainly related to Invoices.  I would in general not expect the Cash Receipts to "be paid off".

    The Apply From GL post date is the posting date of the apply from transaction - so I would expect that to always be the same if relating to the same document.  Whereas the apply day - linking to the Date Invoice Paid off - can be very different.

    I know that this is a payables example that I am about to provide, but the underlying function is the same.

    I have a client that enters the payment in GP after it goes through the bank.  And if they go back to the transaction and apply some documents later - even before posting the receipt, the apply dates can be different.

    I checked my Fabrikam database, and I only had one payment showing with a date invoice paid off date populated.  And it was a voided transaction.  So to test, I voided another payment - and that populated the date as well.

    So my answer, is that it populates when you void a payment.

    Cheers

    Heather

  • Suggested answer
    L Vail Profile Picture
    65,271 on at
    RE: Answer this A/R question and you'll earn you a LESLIE VAIL badge!

    Sparkly,

    Seems like I took a shot at this question on the GPUG Collaborate site.

    The Date the invoice is paid off is the Apply Date of the payment (or credit or write off)that brought the current transaction amount to zero.

    1. If the cash receipt were posted before the Apply and then the Apply was done later, the date will default to the current user date on the date the Apply is done.

    2. If the cash receipt was applied when it was entered, the Apply date will come from the Apply date field on the Apply Sales Document window.

    3. If the receipt comes from the SOP entry window, the Apply date will be the Date of the payment document.

    I've mostly seen the paid off date be messed up because the apply came after the date of the receipt.

    Kind regards,

    Leslie

  • serbach Profile Picture
    571 on at
    RE: Answer this A/R question and you'll earn you a LESLIE VAIL badge!

    Carl,

    That's really inside baseball! I presume that you're talking about the RM20101.CURNCYID field? We only deal in US dollars, so that field is always empty. Nice try, though!

    Sincerely,

    "Sparkly" Steve Erbach - Business Analyst & MS Dynamics Platform Administrator

    GPUGSummit2017NashvilleTrackLeader_5F00_50.jpg
    WOW Logistics Company - Appleton, WI
    Co-Chair, GPUG WI (Green Bay) Chapter

  • serbach Profile Picture
    571 on at
    RE: Answer this A/R question and you'll earn you a LESLIE VAIL badge!

    Hi, Béat,

    "strange field name", he says! I live with that field and its peculiarities. This is just the latest.

    I won't need to check the SOP paper because the vast majority of our invoices come into GP via integration with external invoicing applications.

    Still working on it...

    Sincerely,

    "Sparkly" Steve Erbach - Business Analyst & MS Dynamics Platform Administrator

    GPUGSummit2017NashvilleTrackLeader_5F00_50.jpg
    WOW Logistics Company - Appleton, WI
    Co-Chair, GPUG WI (Green Bay) Chapter

  • serbach Profile Picture
    571 on at
    RE: Answer this A/R question and you'll earn you a LESLIE VAIL badge!

    Tim,

    Can I just guess (cause I don't really feel like testing it) ?

    Sure, go ahead!

    I'm guessing the subset where this date is updated are from applies done after the payment is posted.

    That's something to consider. I don't know what the workflow or the standard operating procedure is for entering cash receipts. I'll check.

    The thing that's goofy to me is that the RM20201.ApplyFromGLPostDate for each of the invoices paid by the problem child cash receipt is the same: 12/12/2016... and that's the RM20201.APFRDCDT, too. It's just the RM20101.DINVPDOF that differs: some are 12/12 and some are 12/22.

    As to why a payment has two different dates when the user says they did the apply all at once?  Well.... that's what the users always say...

    I do know that this particular cash receipt was nice and orderly. That is, the customer supplied the list of nine invoices (with the proper amounts) that it wanted credited with the cash receipt. So there wouldn't have been any reason for the user to have split up the task of applying the cash on two different days. Everything was right there in front of her.

    Thanks for chiming in. You've given me at least something to check in the A/R workflow here.

    Sincerely,

    "Sparkly" Steve Erbach - Business Analyst & MS Dynamics Platform Administrator

    GPUGSummit2017NashvilleTrackLeader_5F00_50.jpg
    WOW Logistics Company - Appleton, WI
    Co-Chair, GPUG WI (Green Bay) Chapter

  • Carl Meadows Profile Picture
    315 on at
    RE: Answer this A/R question and you'll earn you a LESLIE VAIL badge!

    Hi Steve,

    Don't know if this is relevant but, a quick look a my RM20101 suggest that any cash receipts that have a Date Invoice Paid Off are actually in the non-functional currency.

    Regards,

     

    Carl.

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