Hello.
i have a client who is trying to void a historical payment, in order to capture a new payment to apply to an invoice. As i understand it, when you void a historical transaction in GP payables, the payment is voided and then the invoices, to which the payment was applied, move back into open and are now unapplied. (please feel free to correct me if my understanding is wrong.)
if i am correct however, then what has happened is, the payment is now voided but the invoices are still in history and there is still an apply record sitting in PM30300. Shouldn't the void have removed these apply records and moved the invoice back into open?
i am doing all of this in the test company before implementing in live, my concern is that i don't have a working solution and the recommended solution, in GP, doesn't seem to be working i was expecting it to.
any advice would be greatly appreciated.
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