Invoices for customers were entered and posted in 2008. Some payments were not received until 2009. The payments were applied and posted in 2009, but then voided because they need to be posted in 2008. All the 2009 payments for invoices in 2008 were voided. New payments have been entered reflecting the 2008 dates. Now it wont let me apply the payments to the 2008 invoices, because the voided payment has already been applied to them. Is there any way around this, or do I have create all new invoices?
Also, is there a report that shows the balance for each customer as of year-end 2008?
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Well... My boss decided that we are just going to do a system back-up to before she removed the transaction history. We are a small company, so having to re-enter our work since then won't take too long.
Your advice will definitely be used for future reference.
Thanks for all your help!
Hi,
If she has completed the remove transaction history on all the original payments, this means they are gone from the system. The posting effects of these however were NOT reversed, so you need to be careful with what you do. GP still thinks these were valid transactions...they were removed from the system legitimately...different if they were voided - you would be telling GP that they were input in error and GP would handle all of the reversals required.
Re-entering the AR Receipts will create new GL distributions etc. You need to plan what to do with these. Eithre you let the distributions post through to the GL and then post reversing journals manually...or you temporarily switch off posting to GL. I guess from your post that these have already been posted in Receviables. Therefore they are probably posted in GL, so reversing the GL postings manually seems the most likely option.
You will also have issues if you use bank reconciliation. You have just entered another receipt, without cancelling (voiding) the original receipt.
Mariano's suggestion to use the utility in professional services tools to get the invoices open again is probably the best approach ( you could also use Remove Transaction History to get rid of these...and then re-enter them, just like the receipts...but this would also create duplicate postings as with the receipts). However I would do this ina test enviornment first to see what the outcome is.
My advice would be to get the invoices back to Open. Apply the newly entered receipts. Reverse the GL effect of these receipts in a manual GL journal. Deposit the receipt to the Bank module. Enter a Bank Transaction to cancel out the receipts so that your Bank Reconciliation is correct...and then reverse the effect of this bnk transaction using a manual GL journal.
Again, if you can, do this in a test enviornment first!...and check everything...aged debtors listings, GL Trial Balance, Bank Reconciliation etc.
Best of luck.
Thank you.
I did not think that was correct, and got anxious when she told me the Remove Transaction History step. There is a language barrier, so I am trying to do what I can to help her.
Will the original invoices have to be voided and re-entered in order to apply the new payments? As of now, the new payments have a status of Open and everything else has a status of History. (In Transactions by Customer)
The correct scenario would be to void the original payments as you stated. From that point, is the receivables reconciliation necessary to apply the new payments, or when an applied payment is voided will the system recognize that the invoice now does not have a payment applied to it and automatically switch it to Open?
I'm aware her case is not the correct scenario and assume removing the transaction history caused the invoices to stay historical transactions. I'm guessing she will have to void and re-enter everything, since she did not follow the correct process.
NP. I'm actually asking this question for my co-worker in AR.
Here is what she did to "void" the payments:
>Microsoft Dynamics GP
>Tools
>Utilities
>Sales
>Remove Transaction History
>Insert individual Customer ID
>Insert Document # (i.e. 1000 to 1000)
>Insert Document Type = Payment
>Process
She did this for each individual payment that needed to be voided. I have no idea if this is the correct way void a payment, as I'm in AP and voiding is much more straightforward on my end.
Sorry - a bit tired!!..should have read the post more closely.
Yes, you can print a historical aged trial balance for a specific date...but it is the systems estimation of what the balances would have been back at that date, based on all the transactions on the system.
In relation to your issue with voided payments. How did you void the rm cash receipt? - ie what steps did you take?
Again, sorry for getting confused between RM and AP.
Thanks.
So there is no way to print a trial balance as of a specific past date?
The invoice is for a receivable, so it is under the Inquiry - Transactions by Customer. The invoice for one of these customers is History, while the new payment is Open, because it has not yet been applied.
You can print a historical aged trial balance (reports >> Sales >> Trial Balance >> Historical Aged Trial Balance.)
But beware...this will not necessarily print the balances that were there if you had actually printed a TB at that exact date..This takes all transactions and basically ignores any transactions that are dated after the TB date. That means in your case that the payments were not on the system when you would have originally printed a TB...but they are now...so they will be included now...but wouldn't have been if you had printed a TB back then...bit confusing, I know, but hopefully you get my drift.
In terms of the voided payments. The original invoices should be available to be re-applied. Did anything happen when you were voiding the payments?
If you look at one of these invoices in the Vendor Enquier ( Enquiry >> Purchasing >> Transactions by Vendor)...what is its 'Origin' - Open or History?
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