Perhaps someone can point me in the right direction as to how GP calculates the material price variance:
We received an item for 60 Euros; the functional currency is US dollars. GP then correctly debits inventory and credits accrued purchases. We then enter the vendor's invoice for this item, at a price of 61 Euros. GP correctly reverses the accrual and establish the payable. It also created, as a part of the journal entry, a debit to the material variance account for 18.3 Euros, and a credit to the inventory account for 17.3 Euros, in order to balance the entry.
The item uses the FIFO perpetual inventory cost method, and there was only one other unit on hand during the time of these transactions.
I would have expected the variance to be one Euro. How is GP calculating the material price variance?
Thank you.
Gary Goldner
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