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Microsoft Dynamics AX (Archived)

Sales Tax Payment

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Posted on by 565

Hi. Our consultant helped us setup VAT in our system (AX 2009) and we have been following the same for last 2 quarters 2018. 

We have some gaps in our understanding about the VAT setup which I want to ask and clear, since we are not entirely clear with the consultant's explanation. 

We use a combination of SalesTaxGroup and ItemSalesTaxGroup for the VAT setup in AX 2009. 

There are 3 ledger accounts Input VAT, Output VAT and Settlement, and 1 vendor account for the Sales Tax Authority. 

As default, VAT for domestic purchases go into Input VAT account, VAT for Sales goes into Output VAT account. 

In case of foreign purchases, we post the VAT manually as a journal entry between SalesTaxAuthority and Input VAT Account. This is because, in foreign purchases, the VAT might be different due to charges and applicable VAT at the port. So we post 0% VAT when making the Purchase Invoices for foreign purchases and we do manual journal entry between SalesTaxAuthority & Input VAT Account. 

This is the setup we are following. 

When making a settlement using the "SalesTaxPayment" form by selecting the 'Update' option, we are noticing the following: 

1) Input VAT account becomes Zero

2) SalesTaxAuthority is updated with SalesTaxPayment amount after (Output-Input). 

3) Settlement Ledger Account is empty. 

My questions are, 

1) Are we following the correct setup? 

2) Why are we using a vendor account for SalesTaxAuthority? How does the settlement usually work, what happens when we do the settlement? What are the accounts affected?  

3) With our current setup, SalesTaxAuthority is having only the transactions that we posted manually (for foreign purchases) and no domestic purchases etc. Is this correct?  If we are using a vendor account to determine how much we need to pay to the authority, shouldn't it have all the purchases?

4) Is it required that at the end of every quarter (our returns are filed every 3 months), the SalesTaxAuthority and InputVAT should be both Zero? 

5) After we make physical payment (money transfer) to the Tax Authority, how do we update this payment in the system? Do we post a journal entry between SalesTaxAuthority and bank? My confusion here is, after settlement (Using SalesTaxPayment form), the system automatically updates the SalesTaxAuthority with the payment amount as 'SalesTaxPayment'. In that case, how do we post the payment made from bank?

I know you all might be pressed for time, but please help me understand this with replies as detail as you can give. I will be eternally grateful for your support.  Please let me know if you need any further information. Thanks in Advance! 

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  • Verified answer
    Ludwig Reinhard Profile Picture
    Microsoft Employee on at

    Hi,

    For No 1: I cannot identify that there is something wrong with your setup based on the information provided.

    For No 2: The tax amount that has to be paid to your tax authority is transferred directly to the vendor account so that you can make the payment with the next vendor payment run. The previous step 1-3 that you mentioned already explains what happens. Settlement usually clears the VAT in and VAT out accounts and transfers the difference to the tax authority vendor account.

    For No 3: I am not clear with that can you post some additional information and supporting screenprint?

    For No 4: In my country we have to ensure this on a monthly basis. I do not know for which country you setup the sales tax. If in doubt, clarify with your local sales tax officer

    For No 5: You usually run an ordinary vendor payment run in a payment journal and pay the tax authority.

    Best regards,

    Ludwig

  • oldman.logan Profile Picture
    565 on at

    Thank you Dr. Ludwig for your reply.

    1) By Setup, I meant, is it ok to post manual entries for VAT as a journal between TaxAuthority and Input VAT in cases of foreign purchases (because the VAT calculated at our port for the shipment is different so we have to follow this). In foreign purchases, we are posting Puchase invoices with 0% VAT and posting VAT manually as a journal with TAX Authority and Input VAT. Is this ok?

    2)  You mean, after running SalesTaxPayment functionality, AX posts the amount we owe to the Tax Authority into the vendor account. Then we run a vendor payment as usual. Am I getting it correctly?

    3) As shown below, the TaxAuthority only has the VAT postings we made manually for foreign purchases and not for domestic purchases.

    GAZT.jpg

    4) In my country, Saudi Arabia, we have VAT returns to be filed every 3 months if our turnover is less than 40 Million SAR and if it is over 40M, then it should be done monthly. My question is, when a salestaxpayment is made and the corresponding payment is made using vendor payment,  the salestax authority should be zero right? Should the Input VAT account be Zero too?

    Thank you so much for the support once again. 

  • Verified answer
    Ludwig Reinhard Profile Picture
    Microsoft Employee on at

    Hi,

    For No 1) Companies in my home country are making those direct postings for special kind of taxes - mainly import related taxes - that are often invoiced by freight forwarding companes such as FedEx, UPS, etc. Not sure what is the common and best practice in your home country but in general this does not seem wrong per se.

    For No 2) Exactly

    For No 3) Please check whether the sales tax authority has been setup and linked to all of your tax codes. If only foreign but not domestic purchases are considered there might be something wrong with the setup.

    For No 4) In my opinion all VAT accounts and the balance on the sales tax authority should be $0 once the payments are made. However, I am not a VAT expert for Saudia Arabia. Yet, the good news is that there are some people out there who already published some blog posts on the VAT for Arabic countries, such as Saudi Arabia. Please search on this community site for those posts. Also try to google them because they specifically address the issues you have in your country.

    Best regards,

    Ludwig

  • oldman.logan Profile Picture
    565 on at

    Thanks Dr. Ludwig.

    3) May I ask if the sales tax authority in your country has only direct postings? Or also has automatic postings by the system when a domestic PO or journal expenses are posted where VAT is auto calculated? I have a mild understanding that the sales tax authority vendor account is only used for settlement (output-input) and vendor payment to clear it. The consultant may have asked us to make direct postings (in case of foreign purchases) for VAT as a journal between Input VAT and TaxAuthority only to show the VAT amount in the Input VAT ledger account and to settle TaxAuthority with Bank for each payment made towards the input VAT. In affect, we could even directly post Input VAT as a journal entry between Input VAT ledger account and bank itself. No need to involve TaxAuthority there. TaxAuthority account can be used for quarter settlement purposes only. I hope my analysis makes sense.  

  • Suggested answer
    Ludwig Reinhard Profile Picture
    Microsoft Employee on at

    Hi,

    In my home country we have only automatic postings when it comes to PO's or expense journals recorded.

    I just had a look at some documents and found the following:

    https://mbs.microsoft.com/Files/public/CS/AX2012R3/SalestaxfunctionalitySaudiArabiaAX2012R3.pdf

    It is for AX2012 but I believe that things are pretty much similar to your AX2009 system.

    Best regards,

    Ludwig

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