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Finance | Project Operations, Human Resources, ...
Answered

Marking a Sales Order to a Purchase Order

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Posted on by 2,487

Is it possible to mark a Sales Order to a Purchase Order? (without creating the PO directly from the SO)?

I have the same question (0)
  • Ludwig Reinhard Profile Picture
    Microsoft Employee on at

    Hello James,

    What do you want to achieve by setting this 'mark'?

    Can you elaborate?

    Many thanks and best regards,

    Ludwig

  • SU-22040800-0 Profile Picture
    2,487 on at

    Hi Ludwig

    I am running a test to see if a marked transaction will prevent the allocation/use of on-hand stock, and what cost it will use.

    Here is my sequence example:

    1.Brand new item (Moving Average Cost, no negative stock allowed) - $100

    2. New SO#1 created with that item.

    3. Create a PO#1 from the SO#1 (which marks that PO#1 against the SO#1)

    At this point, the SO#1 cannot be packed/invoiced because there is no physical on-hand.

    4. Create a new PO#2, with a purch (cost) price of $220.

    5. Post the product receipt for PO#2

    At this point there is available stock from the receipt of PO#2, with a cost of $220 to pack/invoice SO#1 - but SO#1 is marked to PO#1.

    According to my tests, the system will allow the packing/invoice of SO#1, using the receipted stock of PO#2, and at the cost of PO#2 (I'm assuming it will use the real-time moving average cost at the time SO#1 is packed/invoiced).

    Is there an option to prevent the allocation/use of the stock from PO#2, and ensure that the stock (and cost) of PO#1 is used for SO#1 ?

  • Suggested answer
    Ludwig Reinhard Profile Picture
    Microsoft Employee on at

    Hello James,

    I think no. 3 won't work as you expect because marking does not work with moving average costing. Please see: www.microsoft.com/.../details.aspx

    As a result, I cannot see an option to ensure that the costs from PO#1 are deliberately used when posting the SO#1 invoice.

    Best regards,

    Ludwig

  • SU-22040800-0 Profile Picture
    2,487 on at

    Thanks Ludwig

    But is there a way to prevent the allocation/use of the stock from PO#2, and ensure that only the stock of PO#1 is used for SO#1 ?

  • SU-22040800-0 Profile Picture
    2,487 on at

    Hi Ludwig

    Any thoughts on this?

  • Verified answer
    Ludwig Reinhard Profile Picture
    Microsoft Employee on at

    Good Morning James,

    You can make use of reservations if you want to use a specific item from PO1 for SO1.

    The reservation takes, however, only care of the physical 'part'.

    It does not care and handle cost values.

    If you use moving average as the valuation method then there is no way how you can assign a specific cost value from PO1 to a specific SO1.

    Best regards,

    Ludwig

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