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We didn't have PM set to block duplicate invoice numbers and had an invoice submitted to be paid twice. The vendor went and cashed both checks, and both have been reconciled. The vendor applied the payment to later invoices. What would be the best course of action?
You would need:
a) to void the payment (Void Historical Transactions)
b) Then void the invoice (void Open Transactions)
c) re-enter the check payment (manual payment), add a suffix ie; "A" or "1" to the document/check number so you won't use up another check number. Use same date if possible.
d) apply to the later invoices that the vendor applied it to.
e) If you have done Bank Rec already for that period the check/s was cut, on your next BR run, mark the voided check, which will be a negative check then mark also the new payment with the suffix.
I was under the impression it was bad to void reconciled payments, is that not true?
Not necessarily, when you void a reconciled payment, in bAnk rec, there will be a negative check that will appear, and you need to mark that on your next reconciliation plus the new check too so both will wash out!
If you don't want to take the path through voiding reconciled payments, you could alternately create a Credit Memo through Payables Transaction Entry for the amount that was paid in excess, and apply it to the vendor's next invoice.
Pick an appropriate distribution account for the PURCH side of the credit memo distribution, and the PAY side will default to your AP account.
When you run an AP aging, you will see the CM as a credit against the vendor's open balance until it is applied.
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